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logan2022

From statement 1, we can infer that both m and n are not equal to zero

Problem statement:
Is mn < m/n ?
Dividing both sides by m, we get
Is n^2 < 0 ?
n can be positive or negative however n^2 will always be positive

So Is n^2 < 0 ? is a definite No

Isn't statement 1 sufficient using the above approach?

Posted from my mobile device

Be careful, dividing both sides of an inequality by m can have unintended consequences if we don't know whether m is positive or negative.

If m is negative, then once we divide both sides by m, we must reverse the direction of the inequality symbol.
If m is positive, then once we divide both sides by m, the direction of the inequality symbol remains the same.

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