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ibtissem21
­Is \(p < q\)?
(1) \(–3p < –3q\)
(2) \(ap > aq\)­

Couldn't we do that with the second statement ? :

We bring everything to one side.
ap - aq > 0
a*(p-q) > 0

From the question stem : p-q < 0
So a must also be < 0
So we divide a*(p-q) > 0 by "a" and flip the sign
p-q < 0
p < q
2nd statement is sufficient ?

You are mixing up what is given and what is being asked.

p < q is not a fact provided in the question - it’s exactly what we are supposed to determine based on the statements.

We cannot assume p - q < 0 to prove the same thing - that would be circular reasoning.
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