Question / DoubtCan I say that in probability question ratio is never sufficient to find actual probability ?
Response No.
A ratio is often sufficient in probability questions because probability depends on relative counts, not actual counts.
Example:
Spanish : English = 3 : 1
Could be:
* 3 Spanish, 1 English
* 30 Spanish, 10 English
* 300 Spanish, 100 English
Probability of selecting one English book:
* 1/4
* 10/40 = 1/4
* 100/400 = 1/4
Same probability.
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For your specific question:
We need:
Probability(at least one English)
= 1 − Probability(both Spanish)
If Spanish : English = 3 : 1, let:
* Spanish = 3k
* English = k
Then:
Probability(both Spanish)
= (3k / 4k) × ((3k−1)/(4k−1))
Notice that k does not cancel completely because of the "-1" terms.
Examples:
k = 1:
* 3 Spanish, 1 English
* both Spanish = (3/4)(2/3) = 1/2
k = 2:
* 6 Spanish, 2 English
* both Spanish = (6/8)(5/7) = 15/28
Different probabilities.
Therefore Statement (1) is not sufficient.
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GMAT shortcut:
When sampling without replacement, ask:
"Will the ratio alone determine every probability term?"
If the expression contains:
* n−1
* n−2
* remaining objects after a draw
then actual numbers may matter.
When sampling with replacement (or a single draw), ratios usually determine the probability completely.
So the rule is not:
"Ratio is never sufficient."
A better rule is:
"Ratios are often sufficient, but in without-replacement problems the actual total may matter because of the subtraction terms."