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Marco83
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sagarsabnis
@bunuel i dont get why z > x-1 please can you explain?

We know that \(n!+1\) has no factor \(k\), such as \(k<=n\), but \(1\). Refer to the explanation in my previous post.

We have \((x-1)!+1=kz\), which means that \(z\) is a factor of \((x-1)!+1\), hence either \(z\) equals to \(1\) OR \(z>x-1\), as \(z\) can not be \(<=x-1\) (see above).

Hope it's clear.
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now its clear...thanks
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Hi Bunuel,

how do you get from here "x!+x=yz=xkz" to here "(x−1)!+1=kz" ?

Thanks so much!
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Hi Bunuel,

how do you get from here "x!+x=yz=xkz" to here "(x−1)!+1=kz" ?

Thanks so much!

First of all: \(x! = (x-1)!*x\), the same way for example, \(6!=(6-1)!*6=5!*6\).

Thus \(x!+x=(x-1)!*x+x=x((x-1)!+1)\). So, we have that \(x((x-1)!+1)=xkz\). Reduce by x to get \((x-1)!+1)=kz\).

Hope it's clear.
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It is clear. Thank you very much!
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x!+x/z=y
1) x is a factor of y.
let x=3! we have 3!+3/z=y or 9/z=y
z can be 1, 3 or 9 ie 3 values.
let x=2! we have 2!+3/z=y or 5/z=y
This is not valid since x is not a factor of 5.
not sufficient
2) x<y not sufficient as x and y can have multiple values and subsequently z will have multiple values hence not sufficient

combine 1&2. x is a factor of y ie 3 is a factor of 9 and x has to be less than y ie 9.
Now if z=3 or 9 than y=3 or 1 which is not valid as per statement 2. Hence z=1.
combined sufficient.
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