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Devlikes
Hello Guys,
Recently, I was reading an Economist Article when I came to the following paragraph in it:

Barack Obama's policy in Syria-to wish that Mr Assad would go, without willing the means to get him out-has been wretched. Mr.Assad, it seems, will Outlast Mr.Obama. But the war will not end. Indeed, it has taken a turn for the worse.

I never found the logical Antecedent for the underlined "it". If someone can explain me it's presence in the sentence, I will really appreciate it.
Hi Devansh, actually this usage of it that you are wondering about, is a rather common usage on GMAT and many people like to view it as a deferred antecedent of it. If we cull out the portion of the sentence using it, here it is:

Mr.Assad, it seems, will outlast Mr.Obama.

This is equivalent to: It seems Mr.Assad will outlast Mr.Obama.

This is equivalent to: It seems (that) Mr.Assad will outlast Mr.Obama.

Now, what normally happens is that the antecedent appears before the usage of it.

However, here the antecedent appears after the usage of it. So, it is basically referring to that Mr.Assad will Outlast Mr.Obama.