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24 Jun 2014, 17:00
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Dear Mike,
I have just started reading some good materials. But while reading i am encountering some problem on parallel sentences. Both of my question is same.
They say can noun words be in parallel with a noun phrase. Sometimes a noun phrase has a tail of preposition attached to it. do we consider that preposition as common to all noun words in parallel? in similar way with verb in parallel and participles also. I think you could now better understand my point.
I need to work on my reading a bit more so that before enrolling in your course, most probably MAGOOSH, i could understand at least basics. Only then i could ask questions with clarity.
i am planning to give GMAT after a year. i need to work at least 2-3 months on basic part first.
Brijesh
I have just started reading some good materials. But while reading i am encountering some problem on parallel sentences. Both of my question is same.
They say can noun words be in parallel with a noun phrase. Sometimes a noun phrase has a tail of preposition attached to it. do we consider that preposition as common to all noun words in parallel? in similar way with verb in parallel and participles also. I think you could now better understand my point.
I need to work on my reading a bit more so that before enrolling in your course, most probably MAGOOSH, i could understand at least basics. Only then i could ask questions with clarity.
i am planning to give GMAT after a year. i need to work at least 2-3 months on basic part first.
Brijesh
25 Jun 2014, 14:29
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BrijeshABB
Dear Brijesh,
While you are in the process of improving your English, I would strongly recommend the Magoosh English course or, if you are planning to take the TOEFL, the Magoosh TOEFL course. If you purchases one of those, I believe you will be able to purchase the Magoosh GMAT course at a discount later.
It is certainly true that an unmodified single noun can be in parallel with a noun followed by a modifying phrase or clause. If we have
[noun #1] "and" [noun#2][modifier]
when does the modifier apply only to the second noun and when does it apply to both nouns. Unfortunately, there is no mathematically precise rule for determining this. Usually, in the vast majority of cases, the modifier would apply only to the second noun. In some cases, though, it would be clear that it applies to both, for example:
"the king and the queen of England in the 11th century"
"the ups and downs of marriage"
The Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire
There's not a good simple rule for this. It depends very much on context. If you send in some examples from your reading, I could discuss those.
Mike
26 Jun 2014, 08:37
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mikemcgarry
Dear Mike,
As you said, there is no such rule. The same logic will be applied to verb and other forms? but what if the sentence creates ambiguity. Suppose i have to modify the third item in a list of three with a relative clause (A,B,C, who will ....), then this will always create confusion whether this who is for A,B or C.
I have one example from one of the magazine
The Ice-Cube detector, with its array of 5,160 sensors located over a cubic kilometre of pure ice, and buried more than 1.5 km under the south pole, has been designed and built specifically to detect high-energy neutrinos from space.
If I go by logic, the first underlined part relates to 2nd entity while the 2nd underlines to both preceding entities. But, other thought also says that underlined part can modify in other ways also, if i shift the underlined part entity one by one to both entity in first and in second underlined part, restrict the part to 2nd entity only.
Brijesh
