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zfreshjive
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zfreshjive
Hey All,

This is a pretty simple one but i just want to make sure.


5 people flip a coin... what is the probability that there will be one odd-man out (i.e. 4 heads, 1 tail; 4 tails, 1 head).

Isn't it 1/32 ?


Paul is correct -
To get 4 haeds and 1 tail -
(1/2) * (1/2) * (1/2) * (1/2) * (1/2) * 5 = 5/32
Same way, to get 4 tails and 1 head -
5/32
So,
probability = 5/32 + 5/32 = 5/16

cheers,
Dharmin
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Better Solution : Total outcome : 2^5 = 32


Favourable outcomes (4H 1T and 4T IH) = 5!/(4! * 1!) + 5!/(4! * 1!)
= 10

Answer : 10/32 = 5/16
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geemat
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Here's the answer:

the probability of 1 person out of 5 (1/5) getting 4H,1T(1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2 *1/2)or 4T,1H is
1/5 * 1/2*1/2 *1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 + 1/5* 1/2* 1/2* 1/2* 1/2 * 1/2 =
1/5(1/32 + 1/32)=1/5*1/16 = 1/80
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ian7777
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agree with 5/16. My way has no probability formula at all:

First, the denominator - the total number of possibilities when flipping a coin 5 times = 2^5 = 32.

Then, the numerator. How many ways can a heads come up just once or a tails come up just once? There can't be that many! Let's just lay them out:

H T T T T
T H T T T
T T H T T
T T T H T
T T T T H

That's 5 with heads once, so it must also be 5 with tails once. Since we're talking about different people, each ordering is different, so they all count. So we've got 10 total ways.

So probability: 10/32 = 5/16
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zfreshjive
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Thanks, everyone.



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