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20 Nov 2004, 20:16
Kudos
Bookmarks
Hello fellow GMAT club members, will someone like ot break this problem down for me.
I could use a good explanation.
Thanks in advance for all your help.
I could use a good explanation.
Thanks in advance for all your help.
Archived Topic
Hi there,
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20 Nov 2004, 20:29
Kudos
Bookmarks
Hi jeremy, I agree with E. First, you have to realize that if (-1)*x = 1, then x=-1
Then, just plug in -1 in each of I, II and III and you will get an integer.
I) -1 / 2+(-1) = -1/1 = -1 --> this is an integer
II) -1-2 / 3 = -3/3 = -1 --> this is an integer
III) -1+1 / 4 = 0/4 = 0 --> this is an integer
Then, just plug in -1 in each of I, II and III and you will get an integer.
I) -1 / 2+(-1) = -1/1 = -1 --> this is an integer
II) -1-2 / 3 = -3/3 = -1 --> this is an integer
III) -1+1 / 4 = 0/4 = 0 --> this is an integer
21 Nov 2004, 01:14
Kudos
Bookmarks
Paul
Agree with this. The hardest part of the problem is the crappy Kaplan cd making the equation look stupid. To me, it looks like [(-1)^x]x=1, which means nothing at all. So if that threw you off, don't worry - Kaplan is often nothing like the real test and you won't have the problem on the real exam.
am I being transparent about my feelings for Kaplan? I've never been too diplomatic....
