HIMALAYA
vikramm
Doesn't II give 2 negative results?? Question asks for "atleast one negative solution" ... explain please.
II doesnot give any -ve solution but I gives.
suppose A=5 and C= 6
from (I) x^2+Ax+C = 0
x^2+5x+6=0
x^2+3x+2x+6=0
(x+2)(x+3)=0
x = -2, -3
from (II) x^2-Ax+C = 0
x^2-5x+6=0
x^2-3x-2x+6=0
(x-2)(x-3)=0
x = 2,3
from (III) x^2+Ax-C = 0
x^2+5x-6=0
x^2+6x-x+6=0
(x+6)(x-1)=0
x = -6, 1
so I and III give at least one -ve solution.....
Himalaya,
You don't know if I gives one solution - because you don't know the value of the constants of A and C. You can't just pick numbers on this one and assume it will work for all cases. You must use the quadratic formula
-b+or-Sqrt(b^2-4ac)/2a
focus on sqrt(b^2-4ac) if this output is positive then you have 2 solutions (one positive and one negative) if this equals 0 then you have only one solution - may be positive or negative. We also don't know if this calculation equals a negative number; then we would have an undefined solution since the square root of a negative number is undefined (in the case of the gmat).
so compare the answer choices:
I) sqrt(A^C-4(1)(+C)) we don't know because A^2 could be equal to -4*1*C in which the output is zero - thus having only 1 x-intercept (neg or positive). You can make the same argument that A^2 could be less than -4*1*C in which case you would have an undefined or complex solution (no x-intercept) - we don't know here.
II) sqrt(A^2-4*1*C) A as a neg number doesn't give us anything definitive in terms of a neg, pos, or undefined solution since you're just squaring the b coefficient
III) sqrt(A^2-4*1*(-C)) you will always derive a positive solution here because A^2-4*1*(-C) equals (A^2+4*1*C); also, you're guaranteed one neg solution here because the C coefficient is negative.
Hope this makes sense