Last visit was: 25 Apr 2026, 11:23 It is currently 25 Apr 2026, 11:23
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
mirhaque
Joined: 02 Feb 2004
Last visit: 06 Aug 2008
Posts: 211
Own Kudos:
Posts: 211
Kudos: 260
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
abennett
Joined: 10 Aug 2004
Last visit: 27 Jan 2005
Posts: 18
Own Kudos:
Posts: 18
Kudos: 1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
abennett
Joined: 10 Aug 2004
Last visit: 27 Jan 2005
Posts: 18
Own Kudos:
Posts: 18
Kudos: 1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
venksune
Joined: 16 Jun 2004
Last visit: 27 Feb 2007
Posts: 507
Own Kudos:
Posts: 507
Kudos: 160
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
1. (5C2 * 15C1)/20C3 = 5/38

2. 3C1/10C1 * 7C1/10C1 = 3/10 * 7/10 = 21/100

3. 3/10 * 7/9 = 21/90

4. 6C3*5C2/11C5 + 6C4*5C1/11C5 + 6C5*5C0/11C5 = 281/462
User avatar
jimishg
Joined: 28 Jul 2004
Last visit: 11 Nov 2004
Posts: 35
Own Kudos:
Posts: 35
Kudos: 5
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
can someone explain the 1st and the 4th one ?
y is the answer for 1st not 5/114
User avatar
venksune
Joined: 16 Jun 2004
Last visit: 27 Feb 2007
Posts: 507
Own Kudos:
Posts: 507
Kudos: 160
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
1. There are 5 almond cookies - so 2 of it can be choosen in 5C2 ways. There are remaining 15 other type cookies. 1 of it can be choosen in 15C1 ways. So three cookies - 2 of almond and 1 of the other type can be choosen in 5C2*15C1 ways. This the numerator.

To choose 3 cookies out of 20 cookies mean that the total no. of possibilities is 20C3 ways. This is the denominator.

hence (5C2*15C1)/20C3 = (10 * 15)/[(20*19*18)/6] = 5/38.

2. Atleasst 3 white of the 5 picked - means it can be 3 white, 4 white or all 5 white.

If we pick 3 white: then we have (applying the same fundamentals used in 1), (6C3*5C2)/11C5

If we pick 4 white: then we have: (6C4*5C1)/11C5

If we pick all 5 white: then we have: (6C5*5C0)/11C5

Since it can be either 3 or 4 or 5 whites - we add the above three. Hence 281/462.
User avatar
stuti
Joined: 16 Jul 2003
Last visit: 16 Sep 2004
Posts: 39
Own Kudos:
Posts: 39
Kudos: 5
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
venksune
1. (5C2 * 15C1)/20C3 = 5/38

2. 3C1/10C1 * 7C1/10C1 = 3/10 * 7/10 = 21/100

3. 3/10 * 7/9 = 21/90

4. 6C3*5C2/11C5 + 6C4*5C1/11C5 + 6C5*5C0/11C5 = 281/462


for 4th -
P(picking atleast 3 white balls)
= 1-P(no white balls) = 1 - 5C5/11C5 = 1 - 1/462 = 461/462
what am I missing? Cant we interprete the statement to mean no white balls?
User avatar
venksune
Joined: 16 Jun 2004
Last visit: 27 Feb 2007
Posts: 507
Own Kudos:
Posts: 507
Kudos: 160
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Stuti,
No, we cant apply the complementary principle in this case. Let me explain...

Note that the complementary event E* of an event E is defined as the event E not happening. If you are not confused by the statement I will be surprised. Mathematically P(E*) = 1- P(E). Wow, sometimes math is more clear. Let us see a couple of examples where this principle is best applicable.

ex.1. A bag contains 6 red balls, 8 blue balls and 5 white balls. When two balls are drawn at random, what is the probability that the two balls are a) of the same colour and b) are of different colors.

Look at this question carefully. You can apply complementary event principle conveniently for b) if you have the answer for a).

read it this way...
P(Both balls belonging to different colors) = 1 - [P(both balls belonging to same color)]

As a addl. note, let me solve a) here. Total ways in which two balls can be drawn from the total of 19 balls = 19C2 ways. This is the denominator.

The numerator would be 6C2/19C2 + 8C2/19C2 + 5C2/19C2. Got it. Ok.

So b) will be 1 - [6C2/19C2 + 8C2/19C2 + 5C2/19C2]

Let me give one more example to use the complementary strategy.

ex 2: In a series of one days internations between India and Australia, the probability of India winning or drawing is say 1/3 and 1/4 respectively (in reality the probability of India winning can be 0, but let us presume that we can win or atleast draw). If we are asked to find what is the probability of India loosing to Australia - we can conveniently use the complementary approach. How? here it goes..

Prob of a loss = 1- (Prob of a win + Prob of a draw) = 1- (1/3+1/4) = 5/12.

Hope this was useful.
User avatar
stuti
Joined: 16 Jul 2003
Last visit: 16 Sep 2004
Posts: 39
Own Kudos:
Posts: 39
Kudos: 5
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
venksune
Stuti,
No, we cant apply the complementary principle in this case. Let me explain...

Note that the complementary event E* of an event E is defined as the event E not happening. If you are not confused by the statement I will be surprised. Mathematically P(E*) = 1- P(E). Wow, sometimes math is more clear. Let us see a couple of examples where this principle is best applicable.

ex.1. A bag contains 6 red balls, 8 blue balls and 5 white balls. When two balls are drawn at random, what is the probability that the two balls are a) of the same colour and b) are of different colors.

Look at this question carefully. You can apply complementary event principle conveniently for b) if you have the answer for a).

read it this way...
P(Both balls belonging to different colors) = 1 - [P(both balls belonging to same color)]

As a addl. note, let me solve a) here. Total ways in which two balls can be drawn from the total of 19 balls = 19C2 ways. This is the denominator.

The numerator would be 6C2/19C2 + 8C2/19C2 + 5C2/19C2. Got it. Ok.

So b) will be 1 - [6C2/19C2 + 8C2/19C2 + 5C2/19C2]

Let me give one more example to use the complementary strategy.

ex 2: In a series of one days internations between India and Australia, the probability of India winning or drawing is say 1/3 and 1/4 respectively (in reality the probability of India winning can be 0, but let us presume that we can win or atleast draw). If we are asked to find what is the probability of India loosing to Australia - we can conveniently use the complementary approach. How? here it goes..

Prob of a loss = 1- (Prob of a win + Prob of a draw) = 1- (1/3+1/4) = 5/12.

Hope this was useful.


:good thanks!



Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Quantitative Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!