gmatophobia
Bunuel
In a game of dice, Ryan rolls one 6-sided fair dice numbered 1 through 6 and Reynold rolls two 6-sided fair dice numbered two 1 through 6. If the number that appears on Ryan’s dice is same as the number that appears on at least one of the dice that Reynold rolls, then Reynold is considered to have won the game. What is the probability that Reynold won the game?
A. 6/36
B. 8/36
C. 9/36
D. 10/36
E. 11/36
Reynold looses the game when the number that appears on Ryan's dice doesn't appear on either of Reynold's dice.
Let say the number that appears on Ryan's dice is n
Probability that n doesn't appear on Dice 1 = \(\frac{5}{6}\)
Probability that n doesn't appear on Dice 2 = \(\frac{5}{6}\)
Probability that n doesn't appear on Dice 1 & Dice 2 = 5/6 * 5/6 = \(\frac{25}{36}\)
Probability that n appears on either Dice 1 or Dice 2 = \(1 - \frac{25}{36} = \frac{11}{36}\)
Option EIt is better to solve this question using negation method
Instead of Reynold winning , calculate for Reynold losing and subtract it from 1
There are 6 possibilities for Ryan (1 to 6)
lets say Ryan gets 1
so probability for Ryan to get 1 is 1/6
Reynold must get anything from 2 to 6 on both dices
probability for above condition is 5/6*5/6
That means total prob. for Reynolds losing = 1/6*5/6*5/6 (This is just for 1 possibility)
But there are 6 such possibilities since Ryan can get anything from 1 to 6
so total prob. = 6*(1/6*5/6*5/6) = 25/36
Reynold win prob. = 1-25/36 = 11/36
gmatphobia , Could you please confirm this approach ?