Events & Promotions
|
|
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.
Customized
for You
Track
Your Progress
Practice
Pays
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Apr 3001:30 AM EDT
-02:30 AM EDT
At one point, she believed GMAT wasn’t for her. After scoring 595, self-doubt crept in and she questioned her potential. But instead of quitting, she made the right strategic changes. The result? A remarkable comeback to 695. Check out how Saakshi did it.
May 0111:00 AM PDT
-12:00 PM PDT
Free- full-length test + 15 concept videos + 150+ short videos + study plan!
May 0306:30 AM PDT
-08:30 AM PDT
Verbal trouble on GMAT? Fix it NOW! Join Sunita Singhvi for a focused webinar on actionable strategies to boost your Verbal score and take your performance to the next level.
marcovg4
Joined: 15 Mar 2012
Last visit: 04 Jan 2017
Posts: 45
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 19
Location: United States
Concentration: Marketing, Strategy
Schools: ESADE '15 MBS '16 (A) Erasmus '16
18 Jan 2013, 08:58
Kudos
Bookmarks
Hi gmatters!,
Today I started to study for the GMAT, and I decided to tackle SC first. I ́ve seen that the GMAT likes to present a lot of questions with idiom errors. I have a question, does an idiom ́s "ending" (sorry whether this term it is correct or not) has some kind of rigid rule?
For example:
agree to -> to something
agree with -> to someone/person
conclusion: if the idiom ends with "to" always anticipate something; however if it ends with "with" anticipate a person/someone.
Does this apply with every idiom? This way, it would be much easier to apply idioms, consequently, I'd increase my chances to choose the correct SC answer :-D
Thanks for your help!
MV
Today I started to study for the GMAT, and I decided to tackle SC first. I ́ve seen that the GMAT likes to present a lot of questions with idiom errors. I have a question, does an idiom ́s "ending" (sorry whether this term it is correct or not) has some kind of rigid rule?
For example:
agree to -> to something
agree with -> to someone/person
conclusion: if the idiom ends with "to" always anticipate something; however if it ends with "with" anticipate a person/someone.
Does this apply with every idiom? This way, it would be much easier to apply idioms, consequently, I'd increase my chances to choose the correct SC answer :-D
Thanks for your help!
MV
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Verbal Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block below for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
18 Jan 2013, 10:14
Kudos
Bookmarks
Idioms are tough to fit into a set of rules, hence they are idioms.
I could say I agree with the choices made today. -- this does not follow your defined rules.
Your application and description was correct, just not the universal rules.
I could say I agree with the choices made today. -- this does not follow your defined rules.
Your application and description was correct, just not the universal rules.
31 Jan 2013, 10:26
Kudos
Bookmarks
Agree to and agree with are not really the best examples to demonstrate.
Generally, idioms that use "to" are more clear on the GMAT exam.
I forbid you to jump off a cliff.
I forbid you from jumping off a cliff.
Both are okay - it's just that "to do something" is clearer than "from doing something". And you'll notice that when choosing among answer choices, the ones that have "to do something" (infinitive form) will usually end up being in the correct form for the correct answer.
Generally, idioms that use "to" are more clear on the GMAT exam.
I forbid you to jump off a cliff.
I forbid you from jumping off a cliff.
Both are okay - it's just that "to do something" is clearer than "from doing something". And you'll notice that when choosing among answer choices, the ones that have "to do something" (infinitive form) will usually end up being in the correct form for the correct answer.
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Verbal Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
