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09 Sep 2015, 08:34
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Hi,
I have a question about making the verbs parallel with modifiers. Let me ask with an example:
I saw a car taken by the truck and had just three wheels left.
I saw a car that was taken by the truck and had just three wheel left.
I know that second question is actually shortened version of first one but:
1- It seems that in the first sentence "had "as a verb and "taken" as a modifier cannot be used as parallel.
2- It seems that in the second sentence "had" and "was" can be correctly considered parallel (even though it is preferable to use that before had too)
Now the question is which (or if any) of these sentences correct?
I have a question about making the verbs parallel with modifiers. Let me ask with an example:
I saw a car taken by the truck and had just three wheels left.
I saw a car that was taken by the truck and had just three wheel left.
I know that second question is actually shortened version of first one but:
1- It seems that in the first sentence "had "as a verb and "taken" as a modifier cannot be used as parallel.
2- It seems that in the second sentence "had" and "was" can be correctly considered parallel (even though it is preferable to use that before had too)
Now the question is which (or if any) of these sentences correct?
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
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25 Sep 2015, 16:13
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ehsanpolymechanic
Dear ehsanpolymechanic,
I'm happy to help.
The short answer is that first sentence is completely wrong, because of the parallelism error you identified, and the second sentence is 100% correct. By itself, the word "taken" is a past participle. This is a noun modifier and can begin a noun-modifying phrase, a participial phrase. As I believe you understand, a participle can never be in parallel to a full verb.
When we add the correct auxiliary verbs, such as
was taken
has taken
had taken
had been taken
then we create a full verb. This is no longer a noun modifier at all. This is a full verb, to be used only as a verb is used, and it can be in parallel with any other full verb.
Does all this make sense?
Mike
28 Sep 2015, 10:58
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Thank you very much dear Mike. You accurately got to the point. 
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Verbal Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
