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There's no "hard and fast rule". In some cases 'Have' is preferred whereas 'Do' is preferred occasionally.

The explanation wasn't provided but I do remember a couple of examples :-

1. "She has more money than I have" is preferred to "She has more money than I do".

2. Similarly, "She scores more touchdowns than I do" is preferable to "She scores more touchdowns than I have".

I don't recall the exact examples but I definitely remember seeing an example where "have" was preferred to "do" and vice-versa. Unfortunately, the explanation was missing.
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I forgot why but I believe do is the preferred answer. The explanation is in the OG, the question about the discounted wine. I'm on the road so I don't have access to the OG. Can someone post the explanation?


OK, ignore my earlier post post. Here's the original text I found on a website :-

In SAE, we generally use do to replace "regular" verbs, i.e., verbs that are not linking verbs, verbs that use modals, etc.

For example:
Megumi speaks Japanese better than I do.

But you already knew that, I'm sure.

Look at the following examples for something (perhaps) new:
Megumi has visited more countries than I have.

We can use have again because have is an auxiliary verb here.
Megumi has more skirts than I do.

Here, has is NOT an auxiliary verb, and in SAE, we cannot use the verb have in the second bit.


Thus, the choice of "have" and "do" depends on has being an auxillary verb. Can someone provide a detailed explanation for the same?
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I think I get it now...

1. Use "have" when "has" is auxillary, i.e. acting as a secondary verb with the main verb.

E.g., He has scored more runs than I have.

2. Use "do" when "has" is the main verb or in case "has" is not present in the sentence.

E.g., He has more runs than I do.

Or, He scores more runs than I do.


Can someone confirm my understanding, or can someone provide a more detailed, and a better explanation for the same.

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