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08 Jan 2008, 01:53
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"The department of labor allows the fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage."
I came across this example from an ebook, which simply said that this sentence is considered correct because the pronoun "they" is clearly referring to the referent "officers." What I have done is underlined both "officers" and "fees" and would like to know how come the pronoun "they" is not considered ambiguous? because it could also refer to the plural noun "fees" or are we suppose to consider the LOGICAL referent? I'm confused because sometimes I read a book that says never to allow a pronoun have more than 1 possible referent, and then here, I see something else. Although I do agree that "officers" is a logical referent, but there are people who could get confused with the intended referent. Are we suppose to limit our pronouns to only 1 possible referent, or we could be flexible, but provided that we have a logical referent? Would anyone who have any solid idea share it with me and shed some lights? i'd really appreciate it. thanks
I came across this example from an ebook, which simply said that this sentence is considered correct because the pronoun "they" is clearly referring to the referent "officers." What I have done is underlined both "officers" and "fees" and would like to know how come the pronoun "they" is not considered ambiguous? because it could also refer to the plural noun "fees" or are we suppose to consider the LOGICAL referent? I'm confused because sometimes I read a book that says never to allow a pronoun have more than 1 possible referent, and then here, I see something else. Although I do agree that "officers" is a logical referent, but there are people who could get confused with the intended referent. Are we suppose to limit our pronouns to only 1 possible referent, or we could be flexible, but provided that we have a logical referent? Would anyone who have any solid idea share it with me and shed some lights? i'd really appreciate it. thanks
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