Last visit was: 26 Apr 2026, 16:38 It is currently 26 Apr 2026, 16:38
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
Sajjad1994
User avatar
GRE Forum Moderator
Joined: 02 Nov 2016
Last visit: 26 Apr 2026
Posts: 16,766
Own Kudos:
51,939
 [24]
Given Kudos: 6,335
GPA: 3.62
Products:
Posts: 16,766
Kudos: 51,939
 [24]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
23
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Apt0810
Joined: 15 Jul 2018
Last visit: 24 Oct 2020
Posts: 323
Own Kudos:
667
 [3]
Given Kudos: 94
Posts: 323
Kudos: 667
 [3]
2
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
SiffyB
Joined: 23 Jan 2019
Last visit: 10 Dec 2021
Posts: 163
Own Kudos:
340
 [3]
Given Kudos: 79
Location: India
Posts: 163
Kudos: 340
 [3]
Kudos
Add Kudos
3
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
svsivakrishna
Joined: 12 May 2024
Last visit: 31 Jan 2026
Posts: 78
Own Kudos:
33
 [1]
Given Kudos: 180
Posts: 78
Kudos: 33
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
As per the chart,

1. The report indicates that_______ times as much wealth came from the top 1% of Americans as came from the bottom 90%.

Top 1% weightage of wealth = 42%
Bottom 90% combined weightage of wealth = 12+7=19%
42/19 ~ 2.21 times

2. If, at the time of the report, there were $100M more in wealth from the bottom 99% than from the top 1%, then the amount of wealth in America at the time of the report was ________ .

Top 1% wealth weightage = 42%
Bottom 99% wealth weightage = 100-42 = 58%

Difference = 58-42 =16% which is equivalent to 100 Million
Total wealth = 100% = (100/16)*100 mill = 625 mill
.
User avatar
TommasoP
Joined: 03 Jun 2025
Last visit: 29 Mar 2026
Posts: 11
Given Kudos: 18
Location: Italy
Schools: Erasmus (S)
Schools: Erasmus (S)
Posts: 11
Kudos: 0
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
For the second question I did:

O: the wealth of the 1%
X: overall wealth

O=(42/100)X
X-O=O+100

Solving for X we get X=625 (million)
Moderators:
Math Expert
109910 posts
498 posts
212 posts