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Bunuel
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This question is a part of Are You Up For the Challenge: 700 Level Questions collection.
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By all the answers given here, it is implied that 6th rank holder returned penniless.
But same is not given in Question stem.
Can someone clarify.
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First line says, "it will be split among 6 contestants". So, each contestant should have something even if it is 1 otherwise the choices become unbound. You may not see such on the real GMAT.
anshulasthana
By all the answers given here, it is implied that 6th rank holder returned penniless.
But same is not given in Question stem.
Can someone clarify.
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since 150 is to be split into the 6 contestants hence nobody can be left penniless, but the condition is given that it should be in descending order.
from 1: 1st one gets 50,there could be both types of scenarios in which second one gets more than 40 or less than 40
eg 50 41 28 20 10 1 or 50 39 30 20 10 1 so insufficient
from 2: in which the successive distribution is no less than 10
if we take 50 40 30 20 10 0 (the last one is penniless so defies the splitting of money as discussed,
as well any addition in the share of the first one will result in the similar manner)
AND any reduction in the share of the first contestant say 49 39 29 19 9 5 as well keeping up the descending order condition viable, will result in the share of the second contestant less than 40.
so absolute NO. so SUFFICIENT
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