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bkk145
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KillerSquirrel
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KillerSquirrel
the probability for G or B is 1/2

1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2 = 1/16

BBGG = 1/16
BGBG = 1/16
BGGB = 1/16
GBGB = 1/16
GBBG = 1/16
GGBB = 1/16

1/16+1/16+1/16+1/16+1/16+1/16 = 6/16 = 3/8

:-D

I'm trying to see what's wrong with my method...if you can help.
I got the same answer using the method above. However, when I use this method, I get different answer:
Say if you have the first 2 child, you have have either BB,BG,GB,GG. This means that the first 2 child doesn't affect the probability. So, wouldn't the last two child pick would be 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/4?


I don't think you can solve this problem two kids at a time.

:-D
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Fistail
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A recent married couple decided to have four kids. What is the probability that they will have exactly 2 boys and 2 girls?


2 b and 2 g = 4!/2!2! = 6
total = 2^4 = 16
prob = 6/16 = 3/8
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There is a faster way to solve those kind of questions, but I think this is out of scope.

Applying the binomial distribution formula:

https://www.answers.com/topic/binomial-distribution

C(n,k)*p^k*(1-p)^(n-k)

p = the probability for a certain event = 1/2 (getting a boy)

1-P = the completing event = 1/2 (getting a girl)

n = total items in the group = 4

k = desired outcome = two boys = 2

solving

C(4,2)*(1/2)^(2)*(1/2)*(4-2) = 6*1/4*1/4 = 6/16 = 3/8

:-D
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There is a faster way to solve those kind of questions, but I think this is out of scope.

Applying the binomial distribution formula:

https://www.answers.com/topic/binomial-distribution

C(n,k)*p^k*(1-p)^(n-k)

p = the probability for a certain event = 1/2 (getting a boy)

1-P = the completing event = 1/2 (getting a girl)

n = total items in the group = 4

k = desired outcome = two boys = 2

solving

C(4,2)*(1/2)^(2)*(1/2)*(4-2) = 6*1/4*1/4 = 6/16 = 3/8

:-D


yup i was looking for the binomial formula.



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