Previous year: \(Revenues_1 - Expenses_1 = Profit_1\)
Current year: \(Revenues_2 - Expenses_2 = Profit_2 \)
Rewriting taking into account both statements 1) and 2):
Current year: \(1,1Revenues_1 - 1,05Expenses_1 = (1+x\%)*Profit_1\)
The yearly change in percentage is thus: \(x\%= \frac{1,1Revenues_1 - 1,05Expenses_1 - (Revenues_1 - Expenses_1)}{Revenues_1 - Expenses_1}*100\)
Which is equivalent to: \(x\% = \frac{0,1Revenues_1 - 0,05 Expenses_1}{Revenues_1 - Expenses_1}*100 \). It's useful to rewrite this as: \(x\% = \frac{0,1(Revenues_1 - Expenses_1) + 0,05Expenses_1}{Revenues_1 - Expenses_1}*100 \).
We can simplify further: \(x\% = 10+ \frac{0,05Expenses_1}{Revenues_1 - Expenses_1}*100\). Examining this last equation we can see how, given that Profit last year (or \(Revenues_1 - Expenses_1 > 0\)) and \(Expenses_1 \geq{0}\), \(x\%\geq{10}\).
Thus answer is
E, both statements taken together are not sufficient. Where did I do wrong? I guess a possible explanation would be that if an increase in expenses is mentioned it would be naive to think they were 0?