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I am unable to understand the difference in the usage between "seemed to be" and "seemed". After doing some digging, I have come across this link
https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions ... d-of-seems. The long and short of this link is that "seemed to be" is used for objective facts and "seemed" is used for subjective opinions. Also this same link mentions that the usage is highly interchangeable. I would like to know if I can follow the above rule.
Experts kindly help.
GMATNinja Bunuel KarishmaB IanStewartGMAT wouldn't ask you to make a distinction. Normally people use them interchangeably.
Frankly, I am not sure I get the distinction mentioned on that link. If I were to make a distinction between them, I feel "He seemed happy" conveys that "When I met him, at that time, he seemed happy (in those moments)" whereas "He seemed to be happy" conveys more of a state of happiness as in happy in life in this phase. If I think hard about it, perhaps, in part, this distinction does have a subjective vs objective aspect to it.
In any case, as I said, they are mostly interchangeable. We should instead worry about other bigger issues.