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MartyMurray

The question says, map was drawn in 1488-1493, i assume this is inclusive, so the cut off date is 31st Dec 1493, right? Now if Columbus came back in early 1493 and published an account immediately, the map should include West Indies if it was drawn in 1493. So shouldnt this statement weaken the argument, given that the author would have known about West Indies yet didnt include it in the map, so the map cant be drawn in 1493?
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adarsh2000
MartyMurray

The question says, map was drawn in 1488-1493, i assume this is inclusive, so the cut off date is 31st Dec 1493, right? Now if Columbus came back in early 1493 and published an account immediately, the map should include West Indies if it was drawn in 1493. So shouldnt this statement weaken the argument, given that the author would have known about West Indies yet didnt include it in the map, so the map cant be drawn in 1493?
Hi Adarsh,

Notice that, regardless of whether the map could have been drawn in most of 1493, it still makes sense to conclude that it was drawn "sometime in the years 1488 to 1493."

After all, "sometime" in those years doesn't have to be in 1493. I could be in any of the preceding years as well.

In other words, the conclusion restricts the time of the drawing of the map to certain years rather than indicates that it was drawn in all of those years.

So, as long as it's likely that the map was drawn in any of those years, such as 1490 or 1492, the conclusion is correct.
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