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15 Apr 2007, 21:02
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I stuck with one GMAT questions from OG10. If someone can verify the grammar rule below for me, I will understand that GMAT question clearly.
Sentence #1: The blue dress looks more flattering on you than the red one does.
Sentence #1 is clearly correct. However, what if I change the position of the verb "does" at the end?
Sentence #2: The blue dress looks more flattering on you than does the red one.
Can I switch the helping verb to the front of the subject?
Either answer is yes or no, could you explain the structure rule for me? I tried to find the rule on Google but had no luck.
Sentence #1: The blue dress looks more flattering on you than the red one does.
Sentence #1 is clearly correct. However, what if I change the position of the verb "does" at the end?
Sentence #2: The blue dress looks more flattering on you than does the red one.
Can I switch the helping verb to the front of the subject?
Either answer is yes or no, could you explain the structure rule for me? I tried to find the rule on Google but had no luck.
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Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
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21 Apr 2007, 10:15
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devilmirror
I cant tell u the rule why 2nd is wrong but the first one fits well with the parallelism.
X looks more Y than Z does.
