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20 May 2014, 20:42
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We use Present Perfect when there is no reference of time (today, yesterday or 1200 BC). The logic is applicable in this problem. We cannot use past perfect because "Past Perfect" can only be used when two past events need to be chronologically placed in a sentence.
milanproda
Whenever we are presenting a result and the effect of the result still holds true we can use present perfect tense as the case here.
eg: India has got freedom from the British in 1947. --> Here we are talking about the effect of the result. Effect of freedom is stressed here in this sentence. Here the stress is on the meaning "India is free now from the British".
India got freedom from British in 1947. --> This statement just presents the information while prior one emphasis on the effect of the result.
The above is my understanding. if anything is wrong above, correct me.
eg: India has got freedom from the British in 1947. --> Here we are talking about the effect of the result. Effect of freedom is stressed here in this sentence. Here the stress is on the meaning "India is free now from the British".
India got freedom from British in 1947. --> This statement just presents the information while prior one emphasis on the effect of the result.
The above is my understanding. if anything is wrong above, correct me.
26 Feb 2016, 14:19
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sowragu
Correct understanding !.. just that, there is a subject-verb agreement problem in your first sentence.
