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venksune
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hardworker_indian
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crackgmat3
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Yep, I am confused on this one too. But will put forth my explanation.

USSR may have more land than US (more total land, more planted land and more futile land), but produce only 68% of US's produce, owing to less developed processes (I mean the per acre produce of USSR is lesser than that of US).
In this situation, number of futile acres in USSR > number of futile acres in US. But % of futile acres in USSR < % of futile acres in US.
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Paul
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A it is and I'll go with a numerical example

Planted acreage
US: 100 --> 100 used --> yield 100%
USSR: 100 --> 68 used --> yield 68%
As we can see, USSR yield is 68% of US yield

Total acreage (planted+fallow)
US: 100+100 = 200 --> yield will now be 100/200 = 50%
USSR: 100+20 = 120 --> yield will now be 68/120 = 57%

As you can see, USSR yield is now 114% of US yield: 57/50 = 114%
This can only happen if fallow acreage in the US(100) is larger than that of USSR(75)

It is faster to actually do this problem by POE. Sorry I had to correct some of my explanation. It is better now.
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venksune
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Good one guys. OA is A.
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myfrankenstein
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Late but A would have been my choice as well.



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