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Hello. Most grammar books write that object complement comes after direct objectnot indirect object. Something like this is mentioned in the GMAT ultimate grammar book : '' Sometimes, the infinitive is used as a complement after certain verbs. An indirect object pronoun is required before the infinitive in these sentences '' and a few examples are given in the book:
1-)Jennifer begged them to take her to the movies too.
2-)Terry wanted her to go to the dance with him. or She told me not to answer the phone.
To find the object in the first sentence, I asked Jennifer begged to whom '' ? = ''them '' (indirect object ) and object complement is '' to take '' There is no problem with that.
But the following question can be asked in the second sentence : Terry wanted whom ? = '' her '' By the way this question is a direct object question
I am very confused by this situation. Does the direct object necessarily come before the object complement, or can it come with an indirect object? ? I also know that infinitives are used as object complement. I would appreciate it if you could explain it to me in a few sentences. Thank you.
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