Doubts !!

Question

Hi
Please help me with the following:-

1) Are none, not one and no one same ? If not, what's the difference ?

2) I want to retire to a place WHERE I can relax AND I pav low taxes.
Correct:-I want to retire to a place WHERE I can relax AND WHERE I pav low taxes.
I have no problem with the correct statement. But can we have common subordinator for the sentence above ?

I want to retire to a place WHERE I can relax AND pav low taxes.

Is this correct?

OptimusPrepJanielle · Answer

1. Yes they are all essentially the same
2. Yes, you can write a sentence in this form

AjiteshArun · Answer

1. Are you going with  none  or are you open to  none of ?  None  and  not one  are  not  always the same, because  none  is often used as  not any . I believe there is very little reason to pursue this point, as an argument can be made for either side. For example:

None of them is...  vs.  none of them are... 
I really don't think the GMAT can test this. A lot of people used to go singular on such constructions, but that was a (very) long time back, and that view is unlikely to be considered defensible  now .

2. Technically, the second  where  is  not  necessary in that sentence. The sentence is too short. If, however, you take a meaning clarity call, the first could be misinterpreted as saying that  I pay low taxes  is a separate idea. That's where adding the  where  would make sense. We want to avoid saying

(a) I want to retire to a place where I can relax
and
(b) I pay low taxes

What we really want to say is

I want to retire to a place (a) where I can relax
and
(b) where I pay low taxes

So, in short, take a look at the other four options and then take a decision. Don't go in with this as your primary entry point.

kunal555 · Answer

This is what i thought earlier and got confused. According to Manhattan SC, Not one is always singular, while None of and any of ( SANAM pronouns) can take plural form depending upon the noun object of the OF-phrase. 
So, can none of and any of take plural form ? If yes, can you please explain with examples, when do they take singular form and when plural ?

AjiteshArun · Answer

I think it's a big stretch to say that the verb for  none of +    will invariably go plural and that going singular is incorrect. Most importantly, there is no recent evidence from the GMAT that clarifies this point. However, if I got this in a question (that is,  none of +   , and  only  the plural/singular as a split), I'd go with the  singular .

GMATPill · Answer

Saying "where" twice helps add to clarity. However, up to a certain level, depending on context, it may or may not be needed. If not needed, the preferred solution would be the former where the phrasing is simpler/shorter. This depends on your communication goal. On the GMAT, as long as the phrasing is accurate, the shorter/simpler option tends to be the option to choose for the exam.

Doubts !!

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