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Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block below for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
We have to be sure that A != 0. That gives y = (C-B)/A.
From (1) C > B implies that C != B.
That said, we could not have A = 0 otherwise B=C, contradicting C > B.
SUFF.
From (2) A > 1 implies that A != 0.
SUFF.
But look at the question, why do you think it is asking if A is not equal to zero? plzz explain your reasoning..
It's because A, B and C are constants, not variables like Y ... The trap of this question is here .... A, B or C is considered like a fixed number.
So, there are 2 possible case: > Inifinite number of Y > One Y only
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So in this case Y has only one possible value, but if A was equal to zero Y would have infinite bumber of values. Cuz to find Y we would have to devide by A=zero.....?
We have to be sure that A != 0. That gives y = (C-B)/A.
From (1) C > B implies that C != B.
That said, we could not have A = 0 otherwise B=C, contradicting C > B.
SUFF.
From (2) A > 1 implies that A != 0.
SUFF.
But look at the question, why do you think it is asking if A is not equal to zero? plzz explain your reasoning..
It's because A, B and C are constants, not variables like Y ... The trap of this question is here .... A, B or C is considered like a fixed number.
So, there are 2 possible case: > Inifinite number of Y > One Y only
So in this case Y has only one possible value, but if A was equal to zero Y would have infinite bumber of values. Cuz to find Y we would have to devide by A=zero.....?[/quote]
No ... We cannot divid by 0, of course.... But, u will have an equation such as 0*Y + 1 = 1, where B=C=1 and A=0... and thus, 1=1. Y is independant of the truthness of this equation and have all existing numbers as possible values.
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Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.