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stolyar
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stolyar
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IMHO: 1/6*1/6*4/6*4/6*4C2=2/27

4/6 because 3 and 6 are both out
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KSS
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stolyar
IMHO: 1/6*1/6*4/6*4/6*4C2=2/27

4/6 because 3 and 6 are both out


Could you explain why you multiply with 4C2 ?
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stolyar
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stolyar
IMHO: 1/6*1/6*4/6*4/6*4C2=2/27

4/6 because 3 and 6 are both out

Could you explain why you multiply with 4C2 ?


because EXACTLY 1 three and EXACTLY 1 six can go in different order, and we have count all of them.
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gmatblast
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I disagree with 2/27 as an answer. It should be 4/27.

Answer = 4C1 * (1/6) * 3C1 * (1/6) * (4/6)^2 = 4/27

The answer 2/27 is correct only if

3-6-1-2 is equal to 6-3-1-2. However, that should not be the case. They should be considered seperate outcomes.
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Paul
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Gmatblast, I think you are right on this one. It took me a while to see the diff. between 4C1*3C1 and 4C2 but yes, the analysis is perfect. 4/27 should be the answer



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