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14 Sep 2013, 01:45
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Please see the attachment. From the picture, can we ever assume that x = 1/2y as if the triangle is inscribed in the circle and point D is the "center" of the triangle, and, possibly, of that "imaginary" circle. Or in other words, when dealing with the angles (such as in the example provided) can we ever assume that triangle is circumscribable and draw inferences based on that? Would your answer be the same if we were told that point D is the "center" of the triangle...?
This question was inspired by the OG12 DS 140. I wondering about different possibilities regarding the situation.
Share your thoughts please.
This question was inspired by the OG12 DS 140. I wondering about different possibilities regarding the situation.
Share your thoughts please.
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Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
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15 Sep 2013, 17:28
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If this picture appeared in a DS question, then the only thing we can "trust" is that we're dealing with a triangle. We don't know if it's equilateral and we don't know if point D is the center.
t1000
t1000
16 Sep 2013, 04:26
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obs23
Hi,
You can refer to the following link for more details:
What is the area of circle passing points A, B & C
Regards,
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Quantitative Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
