n2739178
in the image provided with this question, which explains the answer, I don't understand why
If x is proportional to the square of y and indirectly pro-
portional to z, it is proportional to:
y^2
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zhow did they come up with that answer?
If x is directly proportional to y, we say x\(= ky\) (k is a constant)
If x is inversely proportional to z, we say \(x = \frac{k}{z}\) (k is a constant)
Now, in case of joint variation i.e. when both these relations hold, we say \(x = \frac{ky}{z}\)
This is the concept of Joint Variation.
See if this makes sense.
Say, \(x = \frac{ky}{z}\)
Here, when z and k are constants, x is directly proportional to y.
When y and k are constants, x is inversely proportional to z.
Hence, both relations are satisfied.
That is the reason we say, "Keeping all else constant, x is directly proportional to y." What we mean is that if x varies with any other variables, keep them all constant. Then relation between x and y is of direct variation.