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dave13
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dave13
CounterSniper many thanks for great explanation :) i have one question if after factoring out we have 49!(1+50) = 49! *51

why Bunuel uses 49! here twice ---> Trailing zeros in 49!: \(\frac{49}{5}+\frac{49}{5^2}=9+1=10\) we have only one 49! left after factoring out :?

have a good day :)


Thats how the formula works .

you keep on dividing the numerator with increasing powers 5 .

you might find this useful !!

https://gmatclub.com/forum/gmat-math-book-87417.html
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