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Bunuel
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Bunuel
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Hi Bunuel,

In these kinds of situations, the formula is P(A) + P(B) - P(both A&B)= 1 right? Because adding just P(A) and P(B) would count the overlaps of twice, thereby increasing the total probability over 1.

But you did not subtract the overlap. Can you please explain why? And also provide a thumbrule of when to subtract and not subtract the overlaps?

Thanks!
Bunuel
Official Solution:


We are given that P(red) = P(blue) + 0.2. Since there are only red and blue balls in the bag, we also have P(red) + P(blue) = 1.

Solving this system of equations gives P(blue) = 0.4 and P(red) = 0.6. This implies that the ratio of blue balls to the total number of balls is 4:10.

From the available options, only 40 for blue and 100 for the total maintains this ratio.


Correct answer:

Blue "40"

Total "100"
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Ohh I guess I understand now,

Because we are only drawing one ball at a time. That one ball can only be a single color, which automatically makes P(A and B)= 0.
Vedant41
Hi Bunuel,

In these kinds of situations, the formula is P(A) + P(B) - P(both A&B)= 1 right? Because adding just P(A) and P(B) would count the overlaps of twice, thereby increasing the total probability over 1.

But you did not subtract the overlap. Can you please explain why? And also provide a thumbrule of when to subtract and not subtract the overlaps?

Thanks!

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Vedant41
Hi Bunuel,

In these kinds of situations, the formula is P(A) + P(B) - P(both A&B)= 1 right? Because adding just P(A) and P(B) would count the overlaps of twice, thereby increasing the total probability over 1.

But you did not subtract the overlap. Can you please explain why? And also provide a thumbrule of when to subtract and not subtract the overlaps?

Thanks!


How could there be an overlap of picking both red and blue at the same time from one ball? Red and blue are mutually exclusive outcomes, so there’s no overlap to subtract.
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I like the solution - it’s helpful.
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