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kritikalal
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kritikalal
If a < 0, is b < 0 ?

(1) b/a > 0
(2) a - b > 0

Can someone please explain this?

I understand why Statement 1 is sufficient, but do not understand how Statement 2 is sufficient.

I chose A which is wrong. The correct answer is below.

a<0 i.e. a is negative.
S1 = b/a > 0 therefore, b also must be negative for b/a to be positive.
b<0 . Sufficient.
S2 = a - b > 0
i.e. a>b (Adding b to both sides, because adding or subtracting variables in both sides of inequalities is allowed, but multiplication or division is not allowed, if we don't know the sign of the variables - Refer to Inequalities theory for more details)
Since a<0, b must be <0, because a>b.
Sufficient.
Answer D.
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Is it possible on gmat test to divide "0" by any given number (except 0 itself)?

If it is possible, then statement 1 would imply that B can also be "0" and it would not be possible to determine if b<0.

Looking forward to your comments.

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Jakub
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Phlaryu
Is it possible on gmat test to divide "0" by any given number (except 0 itself)?

If it is possible, then statement 1 would imply that B can also be "0" and it would not be possible to determine if b<0.

Looking forward to your comments.

Best,
Jakub

(1) says that b/a > 0, which implies that a and b have the same sign. Since it's given that a is negative, then b must be negative too. Sufficient.

Here b cannot be 0 because if it were then b/a would equal to 0 and not greater than 0.
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Also ,in the statement 1 you could multiply both side with a and the equation becomes b>0 ,since a is -ve as per the question flip the sign so it becomes b<0.
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Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

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