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Bunuel,

I was trying the question with a similar approach and here is what I have. Please review my reasoning and tell me what you think.

If a, b, c, and d are positive, is ac + bd > bc + ad?

1) b>a
2) c>d

The prompt " is ac + bd > bc + ad?" can be expressed as "is c(a-b) > d(a-b)?

Statement 1) says b>a, and therefore we know (a-b) is negative.
So, if knowing (a-b) is negative, we simplify the prompt further, we get "is c<d"?
Since we don't know values of c and d, the statement is insufficient.

Again question is , "is c(a-b) > d(a-b)?"
Statement 2) says c>d
which means that (a-b) should be positive to maintain the inequality. And we know, that any equality when multiplied by a positive number, the inequality is preserved. So shouldn't answer be B?? That is statement 2 is sufficient.

I must be having some error in my reasoning, cause I perfectly agree with Bunuel's approach and solution. How am I arriving at something different. Even when using testing cases, I get C as answer. I would like to understand where my reasoning is falling apart!!






Bunuel
audiogal101
If a, b, c, and d are positive, is ac + bd > bc + ad?

(1) b > a
(2) c > d

Please explain reasoning and answer choice. Also, what is the estimate difficulty level of this question and similar question types?

Any help is appreciated.


If a, b, c, and d are positive, is ac + bd > bc + ad?

Is \(ac + bd > bc + ad\)? --> is \(ac + bd - bc - ad>0\)? --> is \(a(c-d) - b(c-d)>0\)? --> is \((a-b)(c-d)>0\)?

(1) b > a --> \(a-b<0\). Not sufficient.
(2) c > d --> \(c-d>0\). Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) \((a-b)(c-d)=negative*positive=negative\). Sufficient.

Answer: C.

I'd say it's 600 level question.
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audiogal101
Bunuel,

I was trying the question with a similar approach and here is what I have. Please review my reasoning and tell me what you think.

If a, b, c, and d are positive, is ac + bd > bc + ad?

1) b>a
2) c>d

The prompt " is ac + bd > bc + ad?" can be expressed as "is c(a-b) > d(a-b)?

Statement 1) says b>a, and therefore we know (a-b) is negative.
So, if knowing (a-b) is negative, we simplify the prompt further, we get "is c<d"?
Since we don't know values of c and d, the statement is insufficient.

Again question is , "is c(a-b) > d(a-b)?"
Statement 2) says c>d
which means that (a-b) should be positive to maintain the inequality. And we know, that any equality when multiplied by a positive number, the inequality is preserved. So shouldn't answer be B?? That is statement 2 is sufficient.

I must be having some error in my reasoning, cause I perfectly agree with Bunuel's approach and solution. How am I arriving at something different. Even when using testing cases, I get C as answer. I would like to understand where my reasoning is falling apart!!

For (2) we have that c>d.
IF a-b is positive, then c(a-b) > d(a-b) and the answer to the question is YES.
IF a-b is negative, then c(a-b) < d(a-b) and the answer to the question is NO.

Hope it's clear.
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Bunuel
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Bunuel,

For (2) we have that c>d.
IF a-b is positive, then c(a-b) > d(a-b) and the answer to the question is YES.
IF a-b is negative, then c(a-b) < d(a-b) and the answer to the question is NO.

Hope it's clear.

Bunuel, a quick question. I did the same as the poster above, and I think we can approach the question in his/her manner too. I have tried to explain, but obviously I can be wrong.

If a, b, c, and d are positive, is ac + bd > bc + ad?

1) b>a
2) c>d

The prompt " is ac + bd > bc + ad?" can be expressed as "is c(a-b) > d(a-b)?

The question basically asks if c > b for this we need to have (a-b) > 0 , or if we find that ( a-b) < 0 then c(a-b) > d(a-b) is no --->( a,b, c, d all positive; thus, none is zero and negative.. we could not prove this way if they were)

Statement 1) says b>a, and therefore we know (a-b) is negative.

So, if knowing (a-b) is negative, we simplify the prompt further, we get "is c<d"?
Since we don't know values of c and d, the statement is insufficient.

Again question is , "is c(a-b) > d(a-b)?"

Statement 2) says c>d

which means that (a-b) should be positive to maintain the inequality.

Since we do not know any relation between a & b we can't be sure.

For eg: if a>b , then a-b>0 and we can divide both sides of c(a-b) > d(a-b) by (a-b)

However, if a< b then (a-b) <0 and the inequality changes to -c > -b , hence c < b

But taking both together we know that b > a; hence (a-b) <0 and the inequality changes to -c > -b , hence c < b

From this we can say c < d
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If a, b, c, and d are positive, is ac + bd > bc + ad?

we can rewrite it as:
ac-ad>bc-bd?
factor a and b
a(c-d)>b(c-d)?

since all are positive, the question is:
is a>b if c-d is >0?
or is a<b if c-d is <0?

so as we can see..we need 2 pieces of information...

(1) b > a
gives only first piece..
suppose c-d=-1.
a*-1 > b*-1

suppose c-d=1
a<b

2 outcomes...so insufficient.

(2) c > d
clearly insufficient. we only know that c-d is positive, but what about the relation between a and b?

1+2 -> sufficient.


re-did the question after 6 months; done in the same way - took 1 minute...
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