Bunuel
audiogal101
Bunuel,
For (2) we have that c>d.
IF a-b is positive, then c(a-b) > d(a-b) and the answer to the question is YES.
IF a-b is negative, then c(a-b) < d(a-b) and the answer to the question is NO.
Hope it's clear.
Bunuel, a quick question. I did the same as the poster above, and I think we can approach the question in his/her manner too. I have tried to explain, but obviously I can be wrong.
If a, b, c, and d are positive, is ac + bd > bc + ad?
1) b>a
2) c>d
The prompt " is ac + bd > bc + ad?" can be expressed as "is c(a-b) > d(a-b)?
The question basically asks if c > b for this we need to have (a-b) > 0 , or if we find that ( a-b) < 0 then c(a-b) > d(a-b) is no --->( a,b, c, d all positive; thus, none is zero and negative.. we could not prove this way if they were)
Statement 1) says b>a, and therefore we know (a-b) is negative.
So, if knowing (a-b) is negative, we simplify the prompt further, we get "is c<d"?
Since we don't know values of c and d, the statement is insufficient.
Again question is , "is c(a-b) > d(a-b)?"
Statement 2) says c>d
which means that (a-b) should be positive to maintain the inequality.
Since we do not know any relation between a & b we can't be sure.
For eg: if a>b , then a-b>0 and we can divide both sides of c(a-b) > d(a-b) by (a-b)
However, if a< b then (a-b) <0 and the inequality changes to -c > -b , hence c < b
But taking both together we know that b > a; hence (a-b) <0 and the inequality changes to -c > -b , hence c < b
From this we can say c < d