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shrutijain12
I take (3/5)*(2/4)*2!, then why is this wrong?

Hi!


It looks like the issue is that you have the first two probabilities correct (3⁄5 probability of getting an odd number for the first selection; 2/4 for the second), but there is no need to multiply those by 2!.


I suspect that you multiplied by 2! in an attempt to account for the two different orders the numbers could be multiplied. For example, if I selected 3 and 1, I could multiply 3*1 or 1*3. But both of those possibilities are already accounted for by the two probabilities we multiplied. There’s a 3⁄5 probability I’ll pick a 1, 3, or 5, and a 2/4 probability I’ll pick one of the other two numbers. That encompasses the possibility of picking 1 first and 3 second, or 3 first and 1 second.


I hope that helps! Let me know if I’m misunderstanding your reasoning. For more practice problems, check out ManhattanPrep’s Free GMAT Starter Kit, which includes problems and explanations written by our teachers.


Happy studying!


Ally Bell
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