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07 Oct 2025, 00:16
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B
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83% (01:07) correct
17%
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based on 168
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If x = 1 and \(\frac{x-y}{z}= 1\) which of the following is NOT a possible value of y?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. -1
E. -2
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. -1
E. -2
07 Oct 2025, 01:04
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(x−y)/z=1 with x=1
This means:
(1−y)/z=1
Multiply both sides by z:
1−y=z
z can't be 0 since it is in the denominator.
And only y=1 makes z=0
Therefore, y=1 is NOT a possible value.
Answer: B
This means:
(1−y)/z=1
Multiply both sides by z:
1−y=z
z can't be 0 since it is in the denominator.
And only y=1 makes z=0
Therefore, y=1 is NOT a possible value.
Answer: B
07 Oct 2025, 07:00
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Bunuel
\(\frac{x-y}{z}= 1\)
solving this equation, we get
x-y = z
when x =1, we get
1 - y = z
1 - z = y
z cannot take the value of 0 (zero), as it’s in denominator, and the term becomes undefined.
so, when z = 0, y = 1.
Hence, the value y cannot take is 1.
Option B
