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If x, y and z are integers then is the product of x, y, and z divisibl
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Updated on: 21 Jan 2018, 23:14
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83% (01:13) correct 17% (02:56) wrong based on 9 sessions
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If x, y and z are integers then is the product of x, y, and z divisible by 6? (1) x = y  1 and z = y + 1 (2) x, y, and z are successive multiples of 2 Hello please check the answer and explain the significance? Does the sequence 2,0,2 violate the statement 2??? Attachment:
Doubt.png [ 68.12 KiB  Viewed 431 times ]
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Originally posted by akgulhane on 21 Jan 2018, 21:49.
Last edited by Bunuel on 21 Jan 2018, 23:14, edited 1 time in total.
Renamed the topic and edited the question.



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Re: If x, y and z are integers then is the product of x, y, and z divisibl
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21 Jan 2018, 22:40
Hi
In general, when we talk about 'multiples of 2', we mean positive multiples only. So 3 successive multiples of 2 could be (2,4,6) or (4,6,8) or (1002,1004,1006) etc.
But still even if you look at 2,0,2 their product is 0 which is divisible by 6 (0 is divisible by all numbers except 0, resulting in 0 only)



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Re: If x, y and z are integers then is the product of x, y, and z divisibl
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21 Jan 2018, 23:21
I have a query here. as per statement 1, we can conclude that x, y and z are successive numbers. like 1,2,3 or 4,5,6 or 77,78,79 and so on. but as per statement 2 they are consecutive multiples of 2, which means they are 2,4,6 or 88,86,84. Doesn't st1 and st2 contradicts each other and they are against the general rule of DS questions? Need some expert reply
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If x, y and z are integers then is the product of x, y, and z divisibl
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21 Jan 2018, 23:28
akgulhane wrote: If x, y and z are integers then is the product of x, y, and z divisible by 6? (1) x = y  1 and z = y + 1 (2) x, y, and z are successive multiples of 2 Hello please check the answer and explain the significance? Does the sequence 2,0,2 violate the statement 2??? Attachment: Doubt.png If x, y and z are integers then is the product of x, y, and z divisible by 6?(1) x = y  1 and z = y + 1. In this case xyz = (y  1)y(y + 1) = the product of three consecutive integers, so at least one of them must be even and one of them must be a multiple of 3, so the product for sure will be a multiple of 6. Sufficient. Or you can recall following property: The product of n consecutive integers is always divisible by n!. Thus, the product of three consecutive integers, must be divisible by 3! = 6. (2) x, y, and z are successive multiples of 2 > xyz = (2k  2)2k(2k + 2) = 8*(k  1)k(k + 1). The same here: (k  1)k(k + 1) = the product of three consecutive integers, so the product for sure will be a multiple of 6. Sufficient. Technically the answer should be D, as EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question. But even though formal answer to the question is D (EACH statement ALONE is sufficient), this is not a realistic GMAT question, as: on the GMAT, two data sufficiency statements always provide TRUE information and these statements never contradict each other or the stem. (1) says that x, y and z are consecutive integers, while (2) says that x, y and z are EVEN consecutive integers. The statement clearly contradict each other, which cannot happen. So, the question is flawed. You won't see such a question on the test. As for you question: 0 is a multiple of every integer, so 0 IS a multiple of both 2 (0 is even) and 6. Finally, you tagged this question as GMAT Prep, which is NOT true. Please, read carefully and follow our rules of posting: https://gmatclub.com/forum/rulesforpo ... 33935.html Thank you.
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If x, y and z are integers then is the product of x, y, and z divisibl
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21 Jan 2018, 23:28






