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Originally posted by AugiTh on 10 Aug 2007, 13:32.
Last edited by AugiTh on 10 Aug 2007, 14:19, edited 1 time in total.
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Inequality Basics: You cannot multiply/divide an inequality by a variable unless you know the sign of that variable because you need to know whether or not to switch the direction of the inequality symbol. The inequality p/q > 1 does not necessarily imply that p > q (unless q is positive).
My question: if p/q = r/s. Is ps = rq?
Or here is another one:
if (x^2+y^2)/xy < 2 could it be optimised as (x-y)^2 < 2?
If YES to both my questions, then why is the rule not applicable here? Any
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Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
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just set it up as a fraction = fraction and cross multiply. as long as p/q = r/s than they will multiply out to the same thing as well. since both sides each have to be positive or negative all the signs will multiply out to equal the same thing.
Quote:
(x^2-y^2)/xy < 2 could it be optimised as (x-y)^2 < 2?
Inequality Basics: You cannot multiply/divide an inequality by a variable unless you know the sign of that variable because you need to know whether or not to switch the direction of the inequality symbol. The inequality p/q > 1 does not necessarily imply that p > q (unless q is positive).
My question: if p/q = r/s. Is ps = rq? Or here is another one: if (x^2-y^2)/xy < 2 could it be optimised as (x-y)^2 < 2?
If YES to both my questions, then why is the rule not applicable here? Any
Show more
With inequalities, you are right; you cannot divide by a variable if you don't know the sign (b/c signs change with negative numbers).
For the first statement, it's not an inequality, so the rule doesn't apply. if p/q = r/s, then by definition, ps = rq. not an inequality equation.
Can't say much for the second statement though. Looks like something one of the DS Gurus could explain.
Inequality Basics: You cannot multiply/divide an inequality by a variable unless you know the sign of that variable because you need to know whether or not to switch the direction of the inequality symbol. The inequality p/q > 1 does not necessarily imply that p > q (unless q is positive).
My question: if p/q = r/s. Is ps = rq? Or here is another one: if (x^2-y^2)/xy < 2 could it be optimised as (x-y)^2 < 2?
If YES to both my questions, then why is the rule not applicable here? Any
Show more
augi,
i've been known to mess up inequalities... but i would say you should be able to divide out a variable as long as it isn't zero. if you divide a variable out just take into account that you have two possibilities now; one where it is
<and> because you have to flip it if it is negative. it probably isn't useful in PS cuz maybe it leads to untrue statements, but maybe this is used in DS??
for question 1: yes.
question 2:
x^2-y^2/xy = ((x+y)(x-y))/x+y <2
x-y < 2
sure looks good to me.
(did you mean x-y or (x-y)^2? if you meant (x-y)^2 show me how you derived it so i can see your thought processes)
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.