Hi everyone,
I have adequate finances to cover the cost of attendance for my first year in school, but certainly do not have enough moolah for my second. The program that I have admitted to and would like to attend does not have a no US co-signer loan program. I am wondering, what happens when students are unable to pay for their second year in the program, due to a change in their financial situation (e.g. sudden death of co-signer, bankruptcy of family business) ? Would the school bar the student from registering for second-year classes? Or would the school be empathetic enough to work with the student to explore ways to help him/her complete the program, assuming that the student is making good progress ? Has anyone come across such a situation before? And if so, how did the school in question react to that particular situation?
Most b-schools do not require International Students to establish adequate funding for both years for issuing the I20. Neither is the International Student required to renew his/her visa at the end of the first year. I reckon that there could be a small percentage of Int'l Students who took the riskier approach of matriculating in a program even though s/he already knew that they would not be able to pay for his / her living expenses and tuition fees in the second year. There could also be a case of the student running into genuine financial difficulties at the end of the first year and hence, does not have the ability to continue with tuition fee payments.
I am putting this up here to get some views on this issue. On one hand, I thought I should throw caution to the wind by taking the riskier approach of matriculating in the school I was admitted to and hope that I would be able to find a way to pay my bills before the start of the second year; on the other, I felt that I was playing with fire and that I could end up with no savings and no degree, if I were disallowed to continue in the program without first paying for my fees. Should I hence proceed to matriculate with the school or not?
Grateful for all advice that I can get from fellow GMAT clubbers. Thanks!