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I was reading a book and came across the following sentence:
“We’d gone from living under apartheid to living under another kind of tyranny, that of an abusive, alcoholic man.”
Excerpt From Born a Crime Trevor Noah This material may be protected by copyright.
I wanted to ask is the use of comma before that of correct here? I believe that refers to tyranny so it’s basically an absolute phrase modifying the tyranny. I will appreciate if the grammar pundits could weigh in here. Thank you!
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Yep...that's a resumptive modifier. Resumptive modifiers are generally preceded by a comma and hence, the comma in this sentence does not look out of place.
Yep...that's a resumptive modifier. Resumptive modifiers are generally preceded by a comma and hence, the comma in this sentence does not look out of place.
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Thanks a lot! This makes more sense now.
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