Last visit was: 19 Nov 2025, 16:58 It is currently 19 Nov 2025, 16:58
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
avatar
stolyar
Joined: 03 Feb 2003
Last visit: 06 May 2014
Posts: 1,012
Own Kudos:
Posts: 1,012
Kudos: 1,850
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Makky07
Joined: 23 Sep 2003
Last visit: 03 Dec 2004
Posts: 192
Own Kudos:
Location: US
Posts: 192
Kudos: 29
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
TIANMU
Joined: 22 Oct 2003
Last visit: 22 Nov 2004
Posts: 34
Own Kudos:
Location: Tokyo
Posts: 34
Kudos: 50
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Emmanuel
Joined: 07 May 2004
Last visit: 26 Jul 2004
Posts: 104
Own Kudos:
Location: Ukraine, Russia(part-time)
Posts: 104
Kudos: 23
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
TIANMU
I don't really understand why 0!=1?
I understand 3! will be 3×2×1=6, but I don't know
how to calculate 0! Please let me know. Thank you.


Don't worry, 0! = 1 BY DEFINITION. Had you known definition of gamma-function, you would have come with such property: gamma(n) = (n-1)!, gamma(1) = 1. => 0! = 1.

how is gamma function defined? It is equal to (see picture):
Attachments

gamma.doc [15.5 KiB]
Downloaded 98 times

avatar
mba
Joined: 26 Jan 2004
Last visit: 15 May 2005
Posts: 211
Own Kudos:
Location: India
Posts: 211
Kudos: 5
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
I believe (B) should be the answer, because |Z|! will be Z only when Z is -1 or 1. Hence Z is ODD. Any explanations??
avatar
stolyar
Joined: 03 Feb 2003
Last visit: 06 May 2014
Posts: 1,012
Own Kudos:
Posts: 1,012
Kudos: 1,850
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
mba
I believe (B) should be the answer, because |Z|! will be Z only when Z is -1 or 1. Hence Z is ODD. Any explanations??


-1 does not satisfy the second equation, for any factorial is always POSITIVE.
User avatar
TIANMU
Joined: 22 Oct 2003
Last visit: 22 Nov 2004
Posts: 34
Own Kudos:
Location: Tokyo
Posts: 34
Kudos: 50
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Emmanuel
TIANMU
I don't really understand why 0!=1?
I understand 3! will be 3×2×1=6, but I don't know
how to calculate 0! Please let me know. Thank you.

Don't worry, 0! = 1 BY DEFINITION. Had you known definition of gamma-function, you would have come with such property: gamma(n) = (n-1)!, gamma(1) = 1. => 0! = 1.

how is gamma function defined? It is equal to (see picture):


Thank you very much, Emmanuel !
I didn't know this definition, but I learn it now.



Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Data Sufficiency (DS) Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
Moderators:
Math Expert
105390 posts
GMAT Tutor
1924 posts