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Matador
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Just something I picked up in an article... 07 Apr 2006, 07:00
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Just something I picked up in an article...

"With him being in that office for so long and being in touch with the students, I don't think I can tell him anything he doesn't already know."

1. him
2. his

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Professor
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Just something I picked up in an article... 07 Apr 2006, 10:34
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Matador
Just something I picked up in an article...

"With him being in that office for so long and being in touch with the students, I don't think I can tell him anything he doesn't already know."

1. him
2. his

Explain your answer!
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his. "his being" is the clue that says the he is in that office for so long. him being means something else.
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selene
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Just something I picked up in an article... 07 Apr 2006, 12:37
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it should be "his being". That's how we use pronouns before a gerund. Also this question may be helpful as well 8-)

https://www.gmatclub.com/phpbb/viewtopic.php?t=27429&highlight=helping
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trivikram
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Just something I picked up in an article... 07 Apr 2006, 16:06
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I think before "being" you need a possessive pronoun.
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Just something I picked up in an article... 08 Apr 2006, 13:34
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selene
it should be "his being". That's how we use pronouns before a gerund. Also this question may be helpful as well 8-)

https://www.gmatclub.com/phpbb/viewtopic.php?t=27429&highlight=helping
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Correct, possessive pronouns are used before gerunds. But my problem is, how the heck do people recognize that being acts as a gerund (noun) here? :roll: I am guessing that the preposition tells you that it is a gerund, as examplified in this case as well:

Everyone of us has understood that without his helping us we would not have succeeded in our program over the past six months.

Correct?
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selene
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Just something I picked up in an article... 08 Apr 2006, 13:50
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selene
it should be "his being". That's how we use pronouns before a gerund. Also this question may be helpful as well 8-)

https://www.gmatclub.com/phpbb/viewtopic.php?t=27429&highlight=helping

Correct, possessive pronouns are used before gerunds. But my problem is, how the heck do people recognize that being acts as a gerund (noun) here? :roll: I am guessing that the preposition tells you that it is a gerund, as examplified in this case as well:

Everyone of us has understood that without his helping us we would not have succeeded in our program over the past six months.

Correct?
Show more



Gerund means "the -ing form of the verb" and it is a noun from now on, not a verb anymore.

In this sentence, you should pay attention to the meaning. "his being" means "his existance". "him being" is totally something different..
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Just something I picked up in an article... 08 Apr 2006, 17:01
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selene
it should be "his being". That's how we use pronouns before a gerund. Also this question may be helpful as well 8-)

https://www.gmatclub.com/phpbb/viewtopic.php?t=27429&highlight=helping

Correct, possessive pronouns are used before gerunds. But my problem is, how the heck do people recognize that being acts as a gerund (noun) here? :roll: I am guessing that the preposition tells you that it is a gerund, as examplified in this case as well:

Everyone of us has understood that without his helping us we would not have succeeded in our program over the past six months.

Correct?
Show more


This also means that "being" is 99% ruled out in GMAT but that 1% questions may be of this type.....

I doubt if being is a GERUND 'cos Gerund acts as a noun.

The rule I vaguely remember
[b]Objective forms of pronouns are usually used after verbs.
For eg: The teacher hated Sunil and me(used the objedtive form of "I")

But the exception to this rule is verb “beâ€



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Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
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Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
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