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Bunuel
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Bunuel
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I have edited the question and the solution by adding more details to enhance its clarity. I hope it is now easier to understand.
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The explanation begins with this statement.

Given that x is a prime factor of y^2, and y is a positive integer, then x must be a factor of y as well - how else could x appear in the prime factorization of y^2 (which is y∗y) if it's not a factor of y ? Accordingly, as x is a factor of (and y is a positive integer), it follows that x≤y. Therefore, xy≤1, so option D must be true.

But what about the case where x is 4 (2^2), and y is 10, 4 is a prime factor of y^2 (10*10=100), but not of y (10)?
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The explanation begins with this statement.

Given that x is a prime factor of y^2, and y is a positive integer, then x must be a factor of y as well - how else could x appear in the prime factorization of y^2 (which is y∗y) if it's not a factor of y ? Accordingly, as x is a factor of (and y is a positive integer), it follows that x≤y. Therefore, xy≤1, so option D must be true.

But what about the case where x is 4 (2^2), and y is 10, 4 is a prime factor of y^2 (10*10=100), but not of y (10)?

You quote a solution but do not pay enough attention to the crucial part of it: x is a prime factor of y^2, meaning x is prime. In your example, 4 is not a prime number. Again, if y is an integer, then y and y^2 will have the same prime factors because when you raise an integer to a positive integer power, its prime factors are also raised to that power, but no new primes are produced. For example, if y = 2^2 * 3, then y^2 = 2^4 * 3^2. As you can see, the primes are the same in both cases.

Hope it's clear.
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I solved it like this: I figured that since x is is a prime factor of y^2, hence it must be a factor of y. which implies x < y , hence x/y < 1 option C
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