Official Solution:If \(a\), \(b\) and \(c\) are integers, is \(a*b*c\) divisible by 32? First of all, notice that \(32=2^5\).
(1) \(a\), \(b\), and \(c\) are consecutive even integers.
In this case, \(a*b*c=(2k-2)*(2k)*(2k+2)=2^3*(k-1)*k*(k+1)\), for some integer \(k\). Now, \((k-1)k(k+1)\) is the product of three consecutive integers, so it must be divisible by 6 (
the product of \(n\) consecutive integers is ALWAYS divisible by \(n!\); therefore, the product of three consecutive integers must be divisible by \(3!=6\)). Thus, \(a*b*c\) MUST be divisible by \(2^4\) (\(a*b*c=2^3*(k-1)*k*(k+1)=2^3*6*something=2^4*3*something\)) but not necessarily by \(2^5\). Hence, this statement is not sufficient.
For example:
If \(a = 2\), \(b = 4\), and \(c = 6\), then \(abc = 2^4*3\) and in this case, \(a*b*c\) is NOT divisible by 32.
If \(a = 4\), \(b = 6\), and \(c = 8\), then \(abc = 2^6*3\) and in this case, \(a*b*c\) IS divisible by 32.
(2) \(ac \lt 0\).
This merely tells us that \(a\) and \(c\) have different signs, which is clearly insufficient to answer the question.
(1)+(2) From (2), we deduced that either \(a\) or \(c\) is negative. And since (1) states that \(a\), \(b\), and \(c\) are consecutive even integers, then these three integers must be -2, 0, and 2 (this is the only set of THREE consecutive EVEN integers that includes both positive and negative numbers). Thus, \(abc = 0\), which is divisible by 32. Sufficient.
Answer: C