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Bunuel
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I don't get it? What if I come up with y=0, and I put it in the equation given, I will find that x = 1; thus x>y. That means, I can solve the question without using x>0. Can someone answer me?

If you put y = 0 into (x + y)/(x - y) = 1 you'll get x/x = 1, which is true for any non-zero x, not only for x = 1. For example, try x = -1.

Hope it helps.
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I have edited the question and the solution by adding more details to enhance its clarity. I hope it is now easier to understand.
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