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For lines to be parallel, their slopes must be equal. The second equation can be rewritten as \(y = \frac{1}{k}*x - \frac{b}{k}\) . Because slopes must be equal, \(k = \frac{1}{k}\) or \(k^2 = 1\) or \(|k| = 1\) .
Obviously the slopes of the lines should be the same. But what about y-intercepts? If the slopes of two lines are same AND y-intercepts are also the same we in fact have the same line, not two parallel lines.
From equality of slopes we establish, that \(|k|=1\), but I also thought that maybe - \(b\neq-\frac{b}{k}\) \(k\neq-1\) \(k=1\)
What do you think?
Archived Topic
Hi there,
Archived GMAT Club Tests question - no more replies possible.
For lines to be parallel, their slopes must be equal. The second equation can be rewritten as \(y = \frac{1}{k}*x - \frac{b}{k}\) . Because slopes must be equal, \(k = \frac{1}{k}\) or \(k^2 = 1\) or \(|k| = 1\) .
Obviously the slopes of the lines should be the same. But what about y-intercepts? If the slopes of two lines are same AND y-intercepts are also the same we in fact have the same line, not two parallel lines.
From equality of slopes we establish, that \(|k|=1\), but I also thought that maybe - \(b\neq-\frac{b}{k}\) \(k\neq-1\) \(k=1\)
What do you think?
Show more
It should be D, cos y intercept can be equal as it is given that lines are parallel but it is not given that lines are not equal.
Archived Topic
Hi there,
Archived GMAT Club Tests question - no more replies possible.