666_ _ = 9*9 - this part is understood = 81 considering 6 digit will not come now 81 will be muliplied by 5! - because digits can come anwhere divided by 3! because 6 is being repreated twice. Now why will we multiply by 2!? we donot know the remaining 2 digits are being repeated or not? There are cases where it will be repeated 66622 and there are cases where it will not be repeated 666 21 - so why do we necessarily multiply by 2!?
2nd Method - Consider 2 cases where 1) The other 2 digits will not be repeated 2) The other two digits will be repeated
case i: We have three 6's and two DIFFERENT digits (e.g., 66612)
We already have three 6's. So, we must select 2 different digits from (0,1,2,3,4,5,7,8 and 9)
We can do this in 9C2 ways (=36 ways)
Now that we've selected our 5 digits, we must ARRANGE them, which means we can use the MISSISSIPPI rule.
We can arrange 3 identical digits and 2 different digits in 5!/3! ways = 20 ways
So, we can have three 6's and two DIFFERENT digits in (36)(20) ways (= 720 ways)
In this part why is answer = 36? Will it not be 72?? 666 9*8 ways for the remaining 2 digits?
I have understood the second part here
case ii: We have three 6's and two IDENTICAL digits (e.g., 66677)
We already have three 6's. So, we must select 1 digit (which we'll duplicate)
Since we're selecting 1 digit from (0,1,2,3,4,5,7,8,9) we can do so in 9 ways
Now that we've selected our 5 digits, we must ARRANGE them, which means we can use the MISSISSIPPI rule.
We can arrange 3 identical 6's and 2 other identical digits in 5!/3!2! ways = 10 ways
So, we can have three 6's and two IDENTICAL digits in (9)(10) ways (= 90 ways)
So, TOTAL number of ways to have three 6's = 720 + 90 = 810
Since there are 100,000 possible 5-digit codes, P(having exactly three 6's) = 810/100,000