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Bunuel
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Official Solution:


If \(p\) is a positive integer, is \(p\) a prime number?

(1) \(p\) and \(p+1\) have the same number of factors.

Primes have 2 factors, 1 and itself, (the reverse is also true: if a positive integer has 2 factors, then it must be a prime). So, for the answer to the question to be YES, both \(p\) and \(p+1\) must be primes. Are there consecutive primes? Yes, 2 and 3.

Could we have a case when \(p\) and \(p+1\) have the same number of factors, and \(p\) is NOT a prime? Yes. For example, both 14 (not a prime) and 15 have four factors. Also, both 21 (not a prime) and 22 have four factors.

Not sufficient.

(2) \(p-1\) is a factor of \(p\).

\(p-1\) and \(p\) are consecutive integers. Consecutive integers do not share any common factor but 1. Therefore, for \(p-1\) to be a factor of \(p\), \(p-1\) must be 1, which makes \(p\) equal to prime number 2. Sufficient.


Answer: B

What if P=1 than P-1=0 won't this make statement 2 insufficient?

0 is not a factor of any integer.
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Hi Bunuel,

Can you recap the rules for 0 again please?

I also got this question wrong because I thought of p=1 and p-1 = 0 for statement 2.

So in effect 0 is a multiple of all numbers but not a factor of any number?

Best wishes,

Tosin
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Hi Bunuel,

Can you recap the rules for 0 again please?

I also got this question wrong because I thought of p=1 and p-1 = 0 for statement 2.

So in effect 0 is a multiple of all numbers but not a factor of any number?

Best wishes,

Tosin

0 is not a factor of any integer: division by 0 is not allowed.

0 is a multiple of every integer: 0/integer = 0.
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I have edited the question and the solution by adding more details to enhance its clarity. I hope it is now easier to understand.
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