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Bunuel
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Bunuel
Official Solution:

If \(x\) is a positive number and \(\frac{2}{1+\frac{2}{1+\frac{2}{1+...}}}=x\), where the given expression extends to an infinite number of fractions, then what is the value of \(x\)?

A. \(1\)
B. \(2\)
C. \(3\)
D. \(4\)
E. \(5\)


Given: \(\frac{2}{1+\frac{2}{1+\frac{2}{1+...}}}=x\);

\(\frac{2}{1+(\frac{2}{1+\frac{2}{1+...}})}=x\).

Since the expression in the denominator extends infinitely then expression in brackets would equal to \(x\) itself and we can safely replace it with \(x\) and rewrite the given expression as:

\(\frac{2}{1+x}=x\);

\(2=x+x^2;\)

\((x - 1)(x + 2) = 0\)

\(x=1\) or \(x=-2\). Since given that \(x\) is a positive number, then \(x=1\) only.


Answer: A
How can we safely assume that the expression can be equal to x?

What is this concept? Can you please help? Bunuel

We can safely assume that the expression equals x because it's an example of a recursive or self-referential structure. Since the same expression repeats infinitely, we can replace the part inside the fraction with x. This is a common technique when solving problems involving continued fractions or similar recursive patterns.

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Hope it helps.­
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This is a great question that’s helpful for learning.
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