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Bunuel
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sriyaansth02

Bunuel
Official Solution:


Is \(x^2 < x^3\)?

We can simplify the question by dividing the inequality by \(x^2\) to get: is \(1 < x\)? We can safely do this because \(x^2\) cannot be negative. Also, note that \(x = 0\) does not satisfy either \(x^2 < x^3\) or the rephrased version \(1 < x\). Therefore, by dividing by \(x^2\), we are not introducing the possibility of \(x\) being 0 for the rephrased version, which ensures the validity of this operation.

(1) \(x < x^2\)

Rewrite the inequality as \(x^2 - x > 0\), and then as \(x(x - 1) > 0\). The roots are \(x=0\) and \(x = 1\). The "\(>\)" sign indicates that the solution lies to the left of the smaller root and to the right of the larger root; therefore, the given inequality holds true for: \(x < 0\) and \(x > 1\). Hence, \(x\) may or may not be greater than 1. Not sufficient.

(2) \(x < 1\)

This statement directly provides a NO answer to the question. Sufficient.


Answer: B

2 doubts :

1) How can we divide the equation by 0; what if x is 0- then x^2 is 0 and hence the equation will be undefined
2) For statement 2)- if x=-1/2, then x^2 < x^3 (ANSWER will be YES and not NO right?)

1. You are correct that dividing by 0 is not allowed. However, when dividing by x^2, we are already assuming that x is not 0, as x = 0 does not satisfy either the original inequality x^2 < x^3 or the rephrased inequality 1 < x. Therefore, the possibility of x being 0 is ruled out when we perform this operation.

2. If x = -1/2, then x^2 is positive, while x^3 is negative. This means that x^2 is greater than x^3, which gives a NO answer to the question of whether x^2 < x^3. Essentially, we rephrased the question as: is x > 1? Statement (2) says that x < 1, therefore the answer to the rephrased question is NO, which corresponds to the original question as well.

I hope this clears up your doubts!
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